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Hi Andrea,
Without going through a long exegesis of the original Greek, both translations
are correct and say the same thing, if it is understood in context.
Remember, the KJV is 400 years old and English expressions change. In
addition, that text must be understood in context. Jesus is simply saying
it is not yet the time for Him to start working miracles. Hence, He is asking
Mary why she was bringing this to Him. John is trying to show believers
that Mary intercedes on behalf of those who invoke her intercession. Again,
don't get caught up in an idiom that is no longer part of daily English.
Look at the whole text.
For instance, Jesus calls Mary, Woman and not mother. He is referencing
the Woman spoken of in Genesis 3 and later in Revelation 12.
In fact, Scripture records two conversations between Jesus and the Blessed
Mother. They both happen in John's Gospel.
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The first is the text we are
discussing.
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The second is when Jesus is on the Cross and He says: Woman,
behold your Son.
This is no accident. (John 19:26)
St. John intended
believers to understand that Mary was the Woman in Genesis 3 who would:
- give birth to Messiah
- be at enmity with Satan, and
- be the Mother of the
Church. (Revelation 12)
Hope this helps,
John
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