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Hi, guys —
John 20:30 says,
"Jesus did many other miraculous signs
in the presence of his disciples, which
are not recorded in this book." (John 20:30)
- Why does this passage say in this book when
there were no books, just letters, at the time?
The only book at the time was the Old Testament;
all the New Testament Letters and such were
not assembled together when John wrote this.
- Is this a case where the words of the
Bible have been edited?
I do not see how this verse can be authentic
by referring any recording to this book when
there were no books except the Old Testament.
Thanks!
Shawn
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