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Craig Rinkus wrote:

Hello fellow Christians,

Thank you for taking the time to answer my questions.

  1. I was hoping you could tell me where in the Bible it says that the Pope is infallible when interpreting the Scriptures.

  2. I am looking for help in understanding 2 Maccabees 12:43, which seems to support the idea of giving money as an offering for the sins of the dead:

    43 And making a gathering, he sent twelve thousand drachmas of silver to Jerusalem for sacrifice to be offered for the sins of the dead, thinking well and religiously concerning the resurrection.

    2 Maccabees 12:43


  3. I would like to better understand Tobit 4:11 and Tobit 12:9, which seem to support the idea of salvation by works:

    11 For alms deliver from all sin, and from death, and will not suffer the soul to go into darkness.

    Tobit 4:11

    9 For alms delivereth from death, and the same is that which purgeth away sins, and maketh to find mercy and life everlasting.

    Tobit 12:9

Thank you for your time, and God bless you.

Craig

  { How can the Pope can infallibly interpret Scripture and how do I interpret 2 Maccabees and Tobit? }

Mike replied:

Hi, Craig —

Thanks for the question.

Let me answer the first question and my colleagues can answer the other questions on
2 Maccabees and Tobit.

You said:
I was hoping you could tell me where in the Bible it says that the Pope is infallible when interpreting the Scriptures.

First, as a side note, I don't think your question implied such, but the Church does not have an interpretation for every passage in the Scriptures. As my colleague John said in a previous reply:

As Catholics, we do not rely on an individual priest to interpret the Scriptures. We do rely on the Church to interpret the Bible when it comes to essential doctrine. For example, in the early Church around the year 325 A.D., there arose a dispute about the nature of Christ and the Trinity.

A certain heretic named Arius claimed that Jesus was a created being and was not (fully God and fully Man). The Church, drawing on the understanding of Scripture which had been handed down from the Apostles orally by Tradition, gave us the word Trinity and defined it as: (Three Persons of One Substance, in one God. Each being a Person of the Trinity, fully God by themselves, yet only one God; this being a mystery.)

This is a definition that most Bible believers still hold to today, yet their belief is only implicit. The word Trinity is not explicitly mentioned it the Bible.

Further, history tells us that the Canon of Scripture was not arrived at until 382 A.D. Until then, there was some dispute over both the Old and the New Testament.

In 382 A.D. the Catholic Church, in a general council of bishops at Rome, under the supervision and sanction of the Pope, discerned the list of books which belong in the Bible. Therefore, if the Church discerned which books are the Bible, as Catholics, we believe that the Church can rightly interpret the written Word of God.

This does not excuse any Catholic or non-Catholic Christian from studying and meditating on God's Holy Word. As David wrote in Psalm 119:

11 Thy Word have I hidden in my heart, that I might not sin against thee.

Catholics, as all other Christians, ought to seek God's Will for their individual lives by reading the Bible. Christ does speak to us through the Bible; He:

  • leads us
  • teaches us, and
  • strengthens our faith through His Word.

As Saint Paul wrote in Romans, Faith cometh by hearing and hearing by the Word of God.
(Romans 10:17)

Our Lord said that he would build a Church and the gates of Hell would not prevail against it. (Matthew 16:13-20) He told Peter feed my sheep. (John 21:15-17) St. Paul wrote to Timothy and told him to appoint bishops and elders. Presbyters is where we get the word for our New Testament Priest.

These priests would be responsible for feeding His sheep. He did not say go write a book and let every man figure it out for himself. There are 28,000 denominations, each of whom is claiming that the Holy Spirit has led them to teach this or that. Jesus says Himself,

"He is The Way, The Truth, and The Light" (John 14:6)

not

"the way(s), the truth(s), and the light(s)."

As for the use of Latin, you are gravely mistaken my dear brother.

The Church changed the Liturgy from Greek into Latin around the third century because most of the known world spoke Latin and not Greek. However all of the Eastern Catholics, such as the:

  • Melkites
  • Syriacs, and
  • Armenian Catholics

all translated the text into their respective languages. Further, in the West, where Latin wasn't spoken, it was taught in the schools. If you were going to be able to read, you were going to be able to read Latin. In fact, it wasn't until the twentieth century that Latin became a dead language. You can still find old medical books from American universities written in Latin, because it was a universal language and every one who went to high school studied it, therefore it was easier for the books to be printed in one language. Well, for a very similar reason the Church used Latin.

If you were Polish and you migrated to France you could still understand the Mass, because both the Polish and the French spoke Latin. So quite the opposite, the Church kept the Liturgy in Latin so people could understand it no matter where they went.

As for Bible translations into the vernacular, I hate to tell you but, the Catholic Church issued an English translation, long before King James thought of it. Yes, the Church, did restrict any "Tom, Dick or Harry", from translating the Bible because some of the translations were heretical.

Case in point: Martin Luther took it upon himself to insert the word alien (the German for alone) in Romans 3:28. The original Greek does not have that word there, yet he took the liberty to insert it in his translation.

One last point in conclusion. There are many Catholic exegetes who are not priests or bishops. The Church does not prevent people from studying the Scriptures, nor does it discourage legitimate questions which come from a faith that seeks understanding.

Not every verse in the Bible has a Vatican interpretation; there are only a few passages which must be understood a certain way, based on the Apostolic Teaching of the Church that has been passed down to us through Oral Tradition. Drawing on Her understanding of the Scriptures, as John has shown above, She also gives us the word infallibility.

There is no place in the Bible where it specifically states the Pope is infallible.

It is implied in Our Lord's Words to St. Peter:

13 Now when Jesus came into the district of Caesarea Philippi, he asked his disciples, "Who do men say that the Son of man is?" 14 And they said, "Some say John the Baptist, others say Elijah, and others Jeremiah or one of the prophets." 15 He said to them, "But who do you say that I am?" 16 Simon Peter replied, "You are the Christ, the Son of the living God." 17 And Jesus answered him, "Blessed are you, Simon Barjona! For flesh and blood has not revealed this to you, but my Father who is in heaven. 18 And I tell you, you are Peter, and on this rock I will build my Church, and the powers of death shall not prevail against it. 19 I will give you the keys of the kingdom of heaven, and whatever you bind on earth shall be bound in heaven, and whatever you loose on earth shall be loosed in heaven." 20 Then he strictly charged the disciples to tell no one that he was the Christ.

(Matthew 16:13-20)

and in 1 Timothy 3:15

15 If I am delayed, you may know how one ought to behave in the household of God, which is the church of the living God, the pillar and bulwark of the truth.

1 Timothy 3:15

That said, I think we have to step back and remember that when these Words come from
Our Divine Lord's Mouth in Matthew, the only Scriptures in existence were the Old Testament Scriptures. The new Catholic Christians to the faith would not know what books made up the
New Testament Scriptures until almost 350 years later at the Council of Rome in 382 A.D.

  • How was the Catholic Christian Teaching passed down through the ages to 382 A.D?

By words; by biblically-supported Oral Tradition. "He who hears you hears me." (Luke 10:16)

  • Does this mean Papal Infallibility didn't exist?

No. Everyone believed in it, and there was never a need to formally define it until Vatican Council I in 1870 A.D.

  • Is this something new?

No, in Matthew 23:1-3 we read:

Jesus Denounces Scribes and Pharisees

1 Then said Jesus to the crowds and to his disciples, 2 "The scribes and the Pharisees sit on Moses' seat; 3 so practice and observe whatever they tell you, but not what they do; for they preach, but do not practice.

Matthew 23:1-3

Moses' seat was a foreshadowing of the Chair of St. Peter.

This posting clears up a lot of misconceptions:

Hope this helps,

Mike

John replied:

Craig,

The texts in Tobit don't support salvation by works. What is clear is that in the Jewish tradition there existed an understanding that when one dies, one needs to be purified.

They also understood that the prayers or sacrifices of the living could be applied to the (dead|faithful departed), just like we would pray for a sick person in the hospital.

These Scriptures support the Catholic teaching of Purgatory but again, that is not salvation by works.

Purgatory is simply the final stage of salvation, in which God purifies us by grace.

John

Mary Ann replied:

Dear Craig —

In reference to the passages from Tobit:

I don't see a problem. The text is clear. Alms deliver from death or from sin, in that they obtain mercy. Mercy obtains mercy. It doesn't buy it or earn it. God declares that love in action will be met with His Love, His mercy. Charity covers a multitude of sins, and when Peter said this (1 Peter 4:8), he was referring, not to feelings of love, but to charity in deed; to alms.

There is such a thing as salvation by works only in this sense: that in order to be saved by God's grace, we have to do works that express our faith and love. The working doesn't make the salvation happen, but it is the necessary condition of salvation. Even if it is just the work of making a plea for mercy, which is an act! God did not lie throughout the entire Old Testament,
in which He told people they needed to walk in His way. I just don't get the issue, I guess.

In reference to the passages from 2 Maccabees:

As for the money for the dead, it was a sacrifice (which can be an animal, grain , or money for the priests at the temple). I guess the money bought an animal to be sacrificed or paid for the support of priests who offered sacrifice for the (dead|faithful departed).

Mary Ann

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