This is another long posting so I've taken the relevant segment that pertain to your question from my colleague, Eric's reply:
If the Bible is a Catholic book, how can Catholics account for the passage:
"A bishop then, must be blameless, married but once, reserved, prudent, of good conduct, hospitable, a teacher...He should rule well his own household, keeping his children under control and perfectly respectful. For if a man cannot rule his own household, how is he to take care of the church of God?"
1 Timothy 3:2-5
The Catholic Church does not allow a bishop to marry, while the Bible says he must be married.
No, you are misreading it. It says that he cannot be married more than once.
Paul was a bishop and was not married.
- Do you think he violated his own rule?
Later Eric replied to the questioner:
You still haven't explained how being married is a "requirement" for being a bishop, given than Paul was a bishop but not married (1 Corinthians 7:7), or why his requirements state that "he must be married but once" rather than simply "he must be married". As I said, this means he should not be married more than once, not that he must be married.
- By the way, do you know what the word for the feast of the Lord's Resurrection is in Latin, Greek, and in most languages other than English and German?
It's identical to the word for "Passover". If you want to argue, we should use the Jewish calendar and celebrate it on the 15th of Nisan, fine, but don't tell me we "changed" the celebration from the Passover to "Easter".
- I have a question for you, incidentally. Does your church strictly follow Acts 15:29?
If your friends have any other questions they need answered, just tell them to visit our site or they can you the direct link:
https://www.AskACatholic.com/AskUs
to ask a question.
Hope this helps,
Mike
