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Hi, Kat —
Thanks for your question.
The answer to your question is No.
The only restriction is that the
foreplay not be contraceptive in
nature. In other words, the man's
orgasm should not intentionally be
caused to occur outside of intercourse.
That doesn't mean there can't be
any stimulation of the man, outside
of intercourse. It simply means,
that his orgasm should take place
during the intercourse.
For woman it is different. Since,
orgasm is not connected with the
procreative nature of sex, there
are no restrictions for her, except
to say, that even within the natural
expression of love and sexuality,
a couple should avoid anything which
lowers sex to the level of pure lust.
In other words, husband and wife
shouldn't treat each other as objects.
John
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