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Theresa De Feo wrote:

Hi, guys —

I have a friend who bought a purse and after two uses, the purse ripped. She went to the store where she bought it and replaced it with another one, but she did not have the receipt so:

  • she took one off the rack
  • unloaded her stuff from the old purse to the new purse, and
  • left the old purse on the rack

She also bought another purse of another color. Her intent was to exchange the purse and not steal it.

  • Was this stealing?

I was not sure what to tell her.

Thank you for your help.

Theresa

  { Since my friend's purse ripped, are her actions deemed steeling if she didn't have the receipt? }

Mary Ann replied:

Hi, Theresa —

The exchange was stealing, even if she didn't intend to steal, because she did not give an equal value in exchange for the new purse. She left a damaged purse in exchange, defrauding, not only the store, but the customer who might buy that purse.

She could have spoken to a clerk about the problem, and perhaps have had it resolved. If not, she should have absorbed the loss and chalked it up as a learning tax.

Mary Ann

Paul replied:

Hello Theresa,

Technically, this sounds like stealing to me. At least objectively. A store has a right to make its own rules regarding having a receipt. That new purse is owned by the store until a store authority grants transfer of possession to a customer. That is done either through purchasing a purse or exchanging the one she had with another one through the store authority. Therefore, your friend took an item that did not belong to her.

  • Did she have a right to take it since the old one broke?

Not without the store's authorization, which would include a receipt.

Paul

Mike replied:

Theresa —

In addition to Mary Ann and Paul's fine answers I just wanted to add that, even if you don't have a receipt, in many retail stores you may be able to get a store credit at Customer Service.

To take a purse that you did not purchase and leave a damaged purse behind would be:

  • steeling, and
  • a monetary loss to the company and its profits

    and, there is no Christian reasoning anywhere throughout history that states:
    the company is rich anyway so they can afford it. It is steeling and it is wrong!

Anyone who would use this reasoning is merely justifying bad behavior on immoral, un-Christian grounds.

The wealth of any company has nothing to do with proper Christian behavior.

You said:
I was not sure what to tell her.

Print this out on your computer and bring it to her to read.

Mike

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