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Bennett Tansey wrote:

Hi, guys —

Apostolic Canon 34 states that:

"The bishops of every nation must acknowledge him who is first among them and account him as their head, and do nothing of consequence without his consent . . . but neither let him (who is head) do anything without the consent of all."

The First Council of the Vatican, however, defines dogmatically that the Pope has the authority, when speaking ex cathedra, to make infallible pronouncements on faith and morals, even without the consent of the other churches.

  • How does the Vatican reconcile these two views?
  • If I no longer believe in Papal infallibility without the consent of the whole Church (that is to say, I believe in Papal infallibility, but only with the consent of the whole Church),
    am I still eligible to receive Holy Communion in the Catholic Church?


  { How does the Church reconcile what Vatican Council I says on Papal infallibility with Canon 34? }

Mary Ann replied:

Bennett —

When the Pope defines something infallibly, something that happens rarely, he is generally stating formally a doctrine that has already been held over time by the whole Church so your situation doesn't really apply.

Mary Ann

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