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Hi, guys —
Apostolic Canon 34 states that:
| "The bishops of every nation must
acknowledge him who is first among them
and account him as their head, and do nothing
of consequence without his consent . . .
but neither let him (who is head) do anything
without the consent of all." |
The First Council of the Vatican, however,
defines dogmatically that the Pope has the
authority, when speaking ex cathedra, to make
infallible pronouncements on faith and morals,
even without the consent of the other churches.
- How does the Vatican reconcile these two
views?
- If I no longer believe in Papal infallibility
without the consent of the whole Church (that
is to say, I believe in Papal infallibility,
but only with the consent of the whole
Church),
am I still eligible to receive Holy Communion
in the Catholic Church?
Bennett
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