Joseph
O'Connor wrote: |
Hi, guys —
Referring to the Second
Coming of Jesus in Matthew 24:36, it states:
36 As for that day and hour, nobody knows
it, neither the angels of Heaven, nor the
Son, no one but the Father only. |
- Could Christ really be ignorant of that day and hour?
- If not, because as God, He knew all things,
must this passage be taken as hyperbole?
(A figure of speech in which exaggeration
is used for emphasis or effect.)
Is it "de fide" that Christ was not ignorant?
Joe
|
{ Referring to the Second
Coming of Jesus, could
Christ really be ignorant of "that day and hour" spoken of in Matthew 24:36? } |
Mary
Ann replied:
Hi, Joe —
As for this passage, my own thought
is that "know" is used
in the sense of "have authority
over" — as Adam and Eve
wanted to "know good and evil" — in
other words, to decide for themselves.
The Father is the source of all,
the fount of eternal generation of
the Son and, with the Son,
of the Spirit. He, in this way, is
the source of the Divine Plan which
culminates in the Second Coming.
He speaks the Word. He decides.
The Son is the Word He speaks. Moreover,
Christ in His human nature, in His
human mind and will, is not the source
of this Plan or the source of the
knowledge of it. Even if He were
aware of it, He can be said not to "know" it.
Finally, the Day is something that
can be moved, depending on the prayer,
as we see in "lead us not into
the trial" and in "Thy
Kingdom come" — and it
is:
- the Father's role to initiate
response to prayer
- the Son's to obey it, and
- the Spirit's to be the working
of it.
Mary Ann
|
Eric
replied:
Hi, Joe —
Thanks for the question.
Christ knew it in His Divine Person,
in His divine nature, but not in
His human nature. When He came to
earth, He "laid aside" his
divine privileges (Philippians 2:7-8).
As such, He willed to know (in His
human nature) only what the Father
wanted Him to know. Presumably, now
that He's taken up the fullness of
His divinity again, He is privy to
that information.
Eric
|
Bob
replied:
Joe,
Thanks for the question.
The answer to the apparent difficulty
has to do with the two natures of
Christ.
As Second Person of the Trinity
(in His divine nature), Christ has
no limitations; as man, Christ's
knowledge is co-terminus with the human nature,
and therefore is dependent on Divine
infusion and vision to know, rather
than knowing by innate intelligence. It
is speaking from the human vantage
point that Christ's remarks make
sense.
If you refer to the St. Thomas Aquinas' Summa
Theologica, Part III, Question
10, Article 2, this question is answered
directly, and in the surrounding
questions, you will see a much more
comprehensive discussion on the knowledge
of Christ.
Peace in Christ,
Bob K.
|
Joe replied:
Hi, guys —
- Is it "de fide" that Christ knew
all things because He was God?
- If so, what is the most authoritative
source for this position?
Joe O'Connor
|
Mary
Ann replied:
Hi Joe,
It is my understanding that the manner
in which Christ's human consciousness
worked, and how He learned and knew
in His human nature, is a matter
of theological discussion. It is
a matter of Revelation that the Person
of Christ, who is the Person of the
Son, enjoys the vision of the Father.
How this vision is participated in
by His human consciousness is one
thing.
Scripture, especially the Gospel
of John, and the Fathers indicate
that He was aware of His identity
and mission from the beginning, which
is logical because that is who He
is, and there is only one subject
in Christ.
Another consideration
is His reflective knowledge or rational
self-knowledge of this identity and
role. This rational self-knowledge is the human expression of personhood,
and that may have developed in a
human way, and indeed, Scripture
seems to indicate that.
I would refer you to the Catholic
Encyclopedia, and to the work of
Fr. Roch Kereszty, SO Cist., Jesus Christ, Fundamentals of Christology for some discussion.
- Bear in mind that the Incarnation
and the hypostatic union of the
human and divine natures, in the
one Person of the Son, are great
mysteries.
- Also bear in mind that a mind
doesn't know, and a will doesn't
act.
A person knows and acts through his
rational powers of mind and will,
which are not parts of, but are expressions
of, the rational spirit.
Hope this helps,
Mary Ann
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