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Dylan O'Connor wrote:

Hi, guys —

I'm having difficulty properly understanding and interpreting the Olivet Discourse [Wikipedia] spoken by Our Lord in Matthew Chapter 24.

I understand there are a number of differing eschatological views regarding this topic. (e.g. partial preterist, full preterist, partial futurist, full futurist, etc.)

I've read that Matthew 24:4-34 refers to the destruction of Jerusalem in 70 A.D. (Matthew 24:34 would seem to imply this) while Matthew 24:35 — Matthew 25:46 refers to His future return and final Judgment of the world. However, there are some verses between Matthew 24:4-34 which also seem to refer to Christ's Second Coming and the final Judgment (i.e. Matthew 24:9-14 and Matthew 24:21-31) so, I'm not sure how to interpret this correctly.

  • What is the traditional view of the Church on how the Olivet Discourse and its eschatology should be understood?

Many [skeptics|atheists] will claim that Jesus wrongly predicted His [Return|Second Coming]
to occur in the first century based on His words in Matthew 24:34:

Amen I say to you, that this generation shall not pass, till all these things be done.

  • Could you explain to me the proper understanding of this verse or recommend some resources that will do so?

Any help would be very much appreciated.

Thanks in advance.

In Christ,

Dylan

  { How does the Church understand the Olivet discourse in Matthew and its eschatology? }

Eric replied:

Hi, Dylan —

Generally those verses would be interpreted as referring, in some sense, to both the destruction of the temple and the apocalypse. The Temple was seen by the Jews as a microcosm of the world. Therefore, the destruction of the Temple was seen as an image of the destruction of the world. (Not that destroying the Temple would destroy the world, only that the prophetic imagery tended to apply somewhat indiscriminately to both events.)

I can't give you a specific quote from the Church Fathers on this subject, nor do I know where this is treated. I can only respond with my own recollection of what I've heard over the years.

I don't see Matthew 24:9-14 as necessarily referring to the prelude to the Second Coming.
After all, these events did happen in the first century. Verse 15 is predicated on a Temple
so that would seem to rule out a Second Coming interpretation.

Matthew 24:34 would seem to refer to the destruction of the Temple. As I said there is a mixture
of Second Coming and temple destruction imagery in the section because of the apocalyptic style the Jews used; for example, verses 15-20 are very clearly fulfilled in the first century, verses 20-25 could be either, verses 26-28 would seem to be the Second Coming although with some imagination one could attribute it to the first century, verse 29 could be either (there are historically documented accounts of heavenly signs occurring in the first century accompanying the temple destruction), verse 30 would seem to be a Second Coming-only verse, verse 31 is more likely Second Coming but could be interpreted as first century, verses 32-33 could be either.

The only thing I can recommend is Dr. Scott Hahn's series on Revelation:

Dr. Hahn is Catholic but he does sometimes rely, heavily, on Protestant sources, but all of it is consonant with the Catholic faith. Another is his bible study on Matthew: The Gospel of Matthew.

Eric

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