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Confused and Troubled wrote:

Hi, guys —

Greetings and God bless you!

I received my S.T.L. (1984) from the Angelicum and much of my study has been on the Church's teaching of suffering, the Subjective Redemption, Saints who greatly suffered, and victim souls.

However, after all these years, I've become confused, not why people suffer; but about the suffering of Jesus. Since I was young, I have heard Catholics speak as if the Father caused the Passion. (People once also said Judas had no choice!) Their talk seemed unkind to the Father though they didn't think it was. Nor had they any devotion or relationship with the Father.
He, and not the Holy Spirit, seems to be the forgotten Person of the Holy Trinity. These people's statements didn't bother me personally as I just thought they were wrong.

Recently, I started to investigate this and read the appropriate sections in the Catechism.
(Part One, The Profession of The Christian Faith, Chapter Two, Article 4, paragraph numbers 565-623) which does state that the Father's plan of Redemption was the sending of His Son to (or who would) suffer and die for our sins. There are, in these sections of the Catechism, Scripture quotes affirming this and statements of Our Lord seeming to imply, (not withstanding the people involved in the cruel actions of Our Lord's Passion), that it was the Father's plan for our Redemption but because He loves us and Jesus accepted this willingly.

  • Is this a valid theological appropriation which we appropriate to the Holy Trinity?

Creation is thought of as having been done by the Father. St. Augustine, St. Thomas and St. Leo the Great all taught that it is an appropriation of a quality that all Three Divine Persons have equally. Abelard taught otherwise (that they were individual qualities) and the Council of Sens and Pope Innocent II condemned his teaching.

My second question is:

  • If it is not a valid appropriation, aren't we saying that sin offends the Father more than the Son, or the Holy Spirit, and out of Love for us, the Father sent His Son to suffer and die to redeem us?

I do see how this would be painful for the Father and how the Son was willing to do this but we are never told that the Son is offended by sin. Yes, we are, in the revelations to saints, but even there, the Father's wrath and anger are mentioned and the Mercy and Work of Jesus intercedes on our behalf to hold back the Father's anger.

  • My very real and painful confusion is, if all this is not appropriated to the Trinity, does it not seem to make Our Dear Father concerned about His Son or does it not seem to make His Son offended over sin?

I discovered your site by searching on Google Ask a Catholic Theologian and was heartened you are in Massachusetts! I am living in exile in Florida.

I would appreciate any help you could provide. I am very grateful for your time and help.

You are providing a holy and much needed apostolate.

Gratefully and with prayers,

Confused and Troubled

  { Is this a valid theological appropriation which we can appropriate to the Holy Trinity? }

John replied:

Dear Confused and Troubled —

Thanks for your question.

For the benefit of other readers let's define what you mean by the word appropriation.

Appropriation — consists in attributing certain names, qualities, or operations to one of the Persons of the Trinity, not, however, to the exclusion of the others, but in preference to the others.

When dealing with this question, you have to bear the following in mind.

The Church has not defined the Mystery of Redemption and Justification in the same way she has defined other doctrines. Rather the best we have to go on is several working theories, each of which helps explain a certain aspect of the Mystery, but each of which is woefully inadequate.

The model which is currently the most popular is Anslem's Theory of Satisfaction but remember it's just a theory. If you take it to an extreme you wind up with God the Father needing anger management because in order to forgive us, He needs to poor out His wrath on Jesus. Of course, this is not the case, but it's easy to see how one could come to that conclusion.

St. Anslem is working inside of a Juridical Paradigm but it's only a paradigm or model. It's not actual doctrine. As I stated, there are other models or paradigms that the Church has used throughout the centuries.

You can read about these models at the following link.

Beyond these paradigms and models, St. Paul gives us others. Among them, he alludes to
the marriage or bride of Christ analogy. St. John also gives us a taste of this in Revelation.
St. Paul also talks about being in Christ or the Mystical Body; and in Galatians, he talks in terms of maturing as sons and heirs, so we have the sonship or divine inheritance paradigm.

The point is: there is more to this than: Jesus paying the price for our sins.  Salvation is far more than avoiding Hell and getting to Heaven.

Finally, there is a reason why the Church has not defined this doctrine. It is a mystery that cannot be defined in human terms so stop beating yourself up trying to squeeze sense out of an incomplete paradigm which is not a defined doctrine.

I like to look at this Mystery as simply Christ giving Himself for us in order to give Himself to us and to give us to the Father.

Salvation is nothing less than participating in the life of God in a covenant relationship.

Beyond that, you'll go nuts if you spend too much time on one paradigm.

John

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