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Adi wrote:

Hi, guys —

I was reading about the Immaculate Conception and I came across a web site which said that the phrase "full of grace" couldn't mean that Mary was without sin because that same word is used in Acts 6:8. I didn't know about this passage and am confused.

  • Can you please help me understand this issue?

Adi

  { Because the same word is used in Acts 6:8, does this mean Mary couldn't be full of grace? }

Eric replied:

Adi —

They are quite incorrect. I just looked at the Greek and the word does not occur in Acts 6:8.
The word in Luke means something like "she who has been fully graced". (a perfect passive participle of "grace")

Acts 6:8 speaks of being full of faith and power, not being full of grace. Also the word "full" is explicit in Acts 6:8, not implicit as it is in Luke 1:28.

Compare:

Eric
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