Hi, Susan —

This is a common question; it's even in our searchable knowledge base.

There are a lot of quick answers there, so give it a try.

I searched the knowledge base for you and found these web postings which should answer your questions:

• If Mary had to be sinless to conceive Jesus, then wouldn't St. Anne had to have been sinless?
• Was I confused about what we believe about the Immaculate Conception and the Virgin Birth?
  

You said:
It seems more logical that she was a person who chose not to sin, and therefore was pure.

• Can you please explain?

As Mary Ann said in the first web posting above:

The Immaculate Conception does not mean that Mary was perfect, only that she did not share original sin. Only God is absolutely perfect. Mary was sinless from the beginning. As for actual sins, she could have sinned, but did not, even under the most grievous suffering.

I think you will find the postings above helpful.

Mike

Susan,

To add to Mike's answer, it is most fitting that Mary be without both original and actual sin.

• Would it make any sense that the perfect, pure, God (who is Love) take His Human Nature from sinful flesh?
  

Jesus, who is God and man, cannot inherit sin. It would be a contradiction of His nature as, God the Son, Incarnate.

God exempted Mary from the stain of original sin by a singular act in order to prepare her to be His earthly Mother. He created Eve without sin and created Mary without the stain of sin that Eve had propagated.

In this respect, Mary is the new Eve who assists in our salvation as mother in the order of grace. Her Yes to God (Fiat) nullified Eve's No, and enabled our Savior to come into the world through her to save us.

Peace,

Paul