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Geoffrey
M. Pittman
wrote:
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Hi, guys —
I was reading one of your Catholic
apologetic web postings and had a question
for you.
You probably get it all the time —
but it's been bugging me.
24 Then Joseph being raised from sleep did
as the angel of the Lord had bidden him, and
took unto him his wife, . . . verse 25.
| 25 but knew her not until she had borne a son; and he called his name Jesus. (RSVCE) |
| 25 And he knew her not till she brought forth her firstborn son: and he called his name JESUS. (Douay-Rheims) |
| 25 and did not know her till she had brought forth her firstborn Son. And he called His name Jesus. (NKJV) |
| 25 And knew her not till she had brought forth her firstborn son: and he called his name Jesus. (KJV) |
| 25 And knew her not until she had brought forth her firstborn son:
and he called his name Jesus. (NIV) |
- Does it mean that the holy parents of Jesus
had sex after Jesus was born?
Thanks,
Geoff
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How do you interpret "until" in Matthew and does this verse imply Joseph and Mary were intimate? }
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John
replied:
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Geoff,
While, in English, the word until often implies an event after a certain
event, this is not always the meaning in the original language.
The Greek word
translated until in Matthew 1:25 is eso.
This same word is used in the Greek translation of the Old Testament
in 2 Samuel 6:23.
Therefore Michal the daughter of Saul had no child unto the day of her
death.
2 Samuel 6:23 (KJV) |
While the English here is translated unto, the Greek word is still eso.
- Does this mean that Michal had children after she died?
<No, of course not.>
Hope this helps,
John C. DiMascio
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