Bringing you the "Good News" of Jesus Christ and His Church While PROMOTING CATHOLIC Apologetic Support groups loyal to the Holy Father and Church's magisterium
Home About
AskACatholic.com
What's New? Resources The Church Family Life Mass and
Adoration
Ask A Catholic
Knowledge base
AskACatholic Disclaimer
Search the
AskACatholic Database
Donate and
Support our work
Frequently Asked Questions (FAQs)
New Questions
Cool Catholic Videos
About Saints
Disciplines and Practices for distinct Church seasons
Purgatory and Indulgences
About the Holy Mass
About Mary
Searching and Confused
Contemplating becoming a Catholic or Coming home
Homosexual and Gender Issues
Life, Dating, and Family
No Salvation Outside the Church
Sacred Scripture
back
non-Catholic Cults
Justification and Salvation
The Pope and Papacy
The Sacraments
Relationships and Marriage situations
Specific people, organizations and events
Doctrine and Teachings
Specific Practices
Church Internals
Church History


Geoffrey M. Pittman wrote:

Hi, guys —

I was reading one of your Catholic apologetic web postings and had a question for you.
You probably get it all the time — but it's been bugging me.

  • What do you say to a Protestant who brings up Matthew 1:25?

24 Then Joseph being raised from sleep did as the angel of the Lord had bidden him, and took unto him his wife, . . . verse 25.

25 but knew her not until she had borne a son; and he called his name Jesus. (RSVCE)
25 And he knew her not till she brought forth her firstborn son: and he called his name JESUS. (Douay-Rheims)
25 and did not know her till she had brought forth her  firstborn Son. And he called His name Jesus. (NKJV)
25 And knew her not till she had brought forth her firstborn son: and he called his name Jesus. (KJV)
25 And knew her not until she had brought forth her firstborn son: and he called his name Jesus. (NIV)
  • Does it mean that the holy parents of Jesus had sex after Jesus was born?

Thanks,

Geoff

  { How do you interpret "until" in Matthew and does this verse imply Joseph and Mary were intimate? }

John replied:

Geoff,

While, in English, the word until often implies an event after a certain event, this is not always the meaning in the original language.

The Greek word translated until in Matthew 1:25 is eso. This same word is used in the Greek translation of the Old Testament in 2 Samuel 6:23.

Therefore Michal the daughter of Saul had no child unto the day of her death.

2 Samuel 6:23 (KJV)

While the English here is translated unto, the Greek word is still eso.

  • Does this mean that Michal had children after she died?
    <No, of course not.>

Hope this helps,

John C. DiMascio

Similar issues . . .

[Related posting]|[Related posting]|[Related posting]|[Related posting]|[Related posting]
[Related posting]|[Related posting]|[Related posting]|[Related posting]|[Related posting]
[Related posting]|[Related posting]

Please report any and all typos or grammatical errors.
Suggestions for this web page and the web site can be sent to Mike Humphrey
© 2012 Panoramic Sites
The Early Church Fathers Church Fathers on the Primacy of Peter. The Early Church Fathers on the Catholic Church and the term Catholic. The Early Church Fathers on the importance of the Roman Catholic Church centered in Rome.